Get Through DRCOG: SBAs, EMQs and McQs by Rekha Wuntakal, Visit Amazon's Madhavi Kalidindi Page,
By Rekha Wuntakal, Visit Amazon's Madhavi Kalidindi Page, search results, Learn about Author Central, Madhavi Kalidindi, , Antony Hollingworth
The ebook presents recommendation on the way to organize for the exam and the way questions will be approached to procure the top marks. With greater than 350 questions, instruction assistance and vast solution reasons, it's the definitive source for these making an attempt the DRCOG. The ebook is finished and authoritative: written by way of an skilled writer and overseen by way of a well-respected professional within the box. it's the crucial revision advisor for these getting ready for this examination.
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Additional resources for Get Through DRCOG: SBAs, EMQs and McQs
It is used for both prophylaxis and treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy. On the other hand, warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy as there is an increased risk of congenital abnormalities and intracranial haemorrhage with its use. If the patient is taking warfarin prior to pregnancy for prophylaxis or treatment of DVT or PE, it would need to be changed into LMWH, which can be given subcutaneously. This should preferably be done before conception to reduce the risk of teratogenicity or as soon as the diagnosis of pregnancy is made.
Chapter 2 Basic clinical skills – Answers Further reading RCOG Green-top guideline No. 38. Gestational trophoblastic disease. 2010. uk/womens-health/clinical-guidance /management-gestational-trophoblastic-neoplasia-green-top-38 Hoffner L, Surti U. The genetics of gestational trophoblastic disease: a rare complication of pregnancy. Cancer Genet 2012; 205(3):63–77. Answer 3: B Complete moles are diploid and their chromosomes are purely paternal. In 90% of the complete moles, the karyotype is 46XX and in 10% it is 46XY.
6 weeks of postpartum LMWH Question 6 A 39-year-old African Caribbean woman presents to her GP with menorrhagia of 10 months’ duration. She does not give any history of intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding. All her previous smears have been normal. Vaginal examination reveals an essentially normal pelvis. She suffers from Crohn’s disease and is taking oral sulphasalazine. She is fed up and is asking for a hysterectomy. What is her first line of management for menorrhagia? A. Hysterectomy B.